1-Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add the command deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log to R3. After adding the command, the administrator verifies the change using the show access-list command. What sequence number does the new entry have?
0
10, and all other items are shifted down to the next sequence number
50
60 *****
2-Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
The new commands overwrite the current Managers ACL.
The new commands are added to the end of the current Managers ACL. *****
The new commands are added to the beginning of the current Managers ACL.
An error appears stating that the ACL already exists.
3-Why are inbound ACLs more efficient for the router than outbound ACLs?
Inbound ACLs deny packets before routing lookups are required. *****
Inbound ACL operation requires less network bandwidth than outbound.
Inbound ACLs permit or deny packets to LANs, which are typically more efficient than WANs.
Inbound ACLs are applied to Ethernet interfaces, while outbound ACLs are applied to slower serial interfaces.
4-Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of a company needs to configure the router RTA to allow its business partner (Partner A) to access the web server located in the internal network. The web server is assigned a private IP address, and a static NAT is configured on the router for its public IP address. Finally, the administrator adds the ACL. However, Partner A is denied access to the web server. What is the cause of the problem?
Port 80 should be specified in the ACL. *****
The public IP address of the server, 209.165.201.5, should be specified as the destination.
The ACL should be applied on the s0/0 outbound interface.
The source address should be specified as 198.133.219.0 255.255.255.0 in the ACL.
5-ACL logging generates what type of syslog message?
unstable network
warning
informational *****
critical situation
6-Which two host addresses are included in the range specified by 172.16.31.64 0.0.0.31? (Choose two.)
172.16.31.64
172.16.31.77 ****
172.16.31.78 ****
172.16.31.95
172.16.31.96
7-Traffic from the 64.104.48.0 to 64.104.63.255 range must be denied access to the network. What wildcard mask would the network administrator configure in the access list to cover this range?
0.0.15.255 *****
0.0.47.255
0.0.63.255
255.255.240.0
8-ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.)
specifying source addresses for authentication
specifying internal hosts for NAT ****
identifying traffic for QoS ****
reorganizing traffic into VLANs
filtering VTP packets
9-What can an administrator do to ensure that ICMP DoS attacks from the outside are mitigated as much as possible, without hampering connectivity tests initiated from the inside out?
Create an access list permitting only echo reply and destination unreachable packets from the outside. ****
Create an access list denying all ICMP traffic coming from the outside.
Permit ICMP traffic from only known external sources.
Create an access list with the established keyword at the end of the line.
10-What effect does the command reload in 30 have when entered into a router?
If a router process freezes, the router reloads automatically.
If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where an ACL is applied, the router reloads in 30 minutes.
If a remote connection lasts for longer than 30 minutes, the router forces the remote user off.
A router automatically reloads in 30 minutes. *****
11-Refer to the exhibit. The following commands were entered on RTB.
RTB(config)# access-list 4 deny 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.15
RTB(config)# access-list 4 permit any
RTB(config)# interface serial 0/0/0
RTB(config-if)# ip access-group 4 in
Which addresses do these commands block access to RTB?
192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.31
192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.31 ******
192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.32
192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.33
12-Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing router to implement the new security policy?
access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip any any
access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www ******
access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 89 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
13-Which three statements are true concerning standard and extended ACLs? (Choose three.)
Extended ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination.
Standard ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination. ****
Extended ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the destination if other traffic is to flow.
Standard ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the destination if other traffic is to flow. ****
Extended ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to pass through the network if placed near the source. ****
Standard ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to pass through the network if placed near the source.
14-Refer to the exhibit. Company policy for the network that is shown indicates the following guidelines:
1) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network, except host 192.168.3.77, should be able to reach the 192.168.2.0/24 network.
2) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network should be able to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
3) All other traffic originating from the 192.168.3.0 network should be denied.
Which set of ACL statements meets the stated requirements when they are applied to the Fa0/0 interface of router R2 in the inbound direction?
access-list 101 deny ip any any
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 ********
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip any any
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
15-Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?
access-list 42 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 42 permit any
access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255****
access-list 56 permit any
access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0
access-list 61 permit any
access-list 87 deny ip any 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 87 permit ip any
16-Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure an access list that will allow the management host with an IP address of 192.168.10.25/24 to be the only host to remotely access and configure router RTA. All vty and enable passwords are configured on the router. Which group of commands will accomplish this task?
Router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip any any ******
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
Router(config-if)# int fa0/0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
Router(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.25 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 10 deny any
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)#access-group 10 in
Router(config)# access-list 86 permit host 192.168.10.25
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# access-class 86 in
Router(config)# access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.10.25 any eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 125 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 125 in
17-Which ACL permits host 10.220.158.10 access to the web server 192.168.3.244?
access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.220.158.10 eq 80 host 192.168.3.224
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80
access-list 101 permit host 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 eq 80 *****
18-Which wildcard mask would match the host range for the subnet 192.16.5.32 /27?
0.0.0.32
0.0.0.63
0.0.63.255
0.0.0.31 *****
19-A security administrator wants to secure password exchanges on the vty lines on all routers in the enterprise. What option should be implemented to ensure that passwords are not sent in clear text across the public network?
Use Telnet with an authentication server to ensure effective authentication.
Apply an access list on the router interfaces to allow only authorized computers.
Apply an access list on the vty line to allow only authorized computers.
Use only Secure Shell (SSH) on the vty lines. *****
20-Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notes a significant increase in the amount of traffic entering the network from the ISP. The administrator clears the access-list counters. After a few minutes, the administrator again checks the access-list table. What can be concluded from the most recent output shown?
A small amount of HTTP trafic is an indication that the web server was not configured correctly.
A larger amount of POP3 traffic (compared with SMTP traffic) indicates that there are more POP3 email clients than SMTP clients in the enterprise.
A large amount of ICMP traffic is being denied at the interface, which can be an indication of a DoS attack. *****
A larger amount of email traffic (compared with web traffic) is an indication that attackers mainly targeted the email server.
1-
Refer to the exhibit. What statement describes the DR/BDR relationship of the HQ router?
HQ is the DR.
HQ is the BDR.
***HQ is a DROTHER.
HQ is a member of an NBMA network.
2-Which two features are associated with Frame Relay OSPF point-to-multipoint environments? (Choose two.)
***A DR is not elected.
The OSPF priority value determines the active DR on the Frame Relay link.
***OSPF neighbor routers are statically defined.
The link types are identified as broadcast multiaccess.
The BDR will have a router ID whose value is greater than the DR router ID.
3-
Refer to the exhibit. How was the OSPF default gateway entry for R2 determined?
Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements.
A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2.
***The default-information originate command is applied on R1.
The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1 and R2.
The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2.
4-What is always required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
designated routers
a backup designated router
***neighbor adjacencies
an NBMA network topology
links that are configured on the 224.0.0.0 network
5-
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented OSPF and the network has converged. If all router interfaces are enabled and functional, what route will OSPF view as lowest cost when moving frames from Host3 to Host1?
R3 to R4 to R1
R3 to R1
***R3 to R2 to R1
R3 to R5 to R2 to R1
6-
Refer to the exhibit. Which commands configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
***router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
7-
Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement configures the home router to allow all the interfaces to participate in OSPF?
network 10.0.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
network 10.8.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
***network 10.8.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.12.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
8-Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections?
A new DR/BDR election occurs each time a new OSPF neighbor is added.
***The router with the highest OSPF priority setting wins the election for DR.
The default priority value for a router connected to a multi-access network is 0.
The router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DR when the default priority values are used.
9-Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator would like only the 172.16.32.0 network advertised to Router1. Which OSPF network command accomplishes this?
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.15 area 0
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
***Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
10- Which two statements describe the operation of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
***All routers in the same area have identical link-state databases when converged.
Routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
Link-state routers send frequent periodic updates of the entire routing table.
Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver and receive LSAs.
***Calculating the shortest path for each destination is accomplished with the SPF algorithm.
11-
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, and C are part of the existing OSPF network. Router D has been added to the network. All routers are running OSPF and have the indicated priorities applied to the interface. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after router D is added to the existing network?
An election is forced and router D wins the DR election.
***The DR and BDR do not change until the next election.
An election is forced and the existing BDR becomes the DR.
The router with the highest router ID becomes the new BDR.
12- Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are always optional.
Elections are required in all WAN networks.
Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
***Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
***Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.
13-
Refer to the exhibit. As part of an OSPF network, R1 and R2 are trying to become adjacent neighbors. Although it appears that the two systems are communicating, neither of the routing tables include OSPF routes received from its neighbor. What could be responsible for this situation?
R1 and R2 are not on the same subnet.
The Process IDs on each router do not match.
***The timer intervals on the routers do not match.
The value set for the Transmit Delay time on both routers is too low.
14-
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the value 128 shown in bold?
***It is the OSPF cost metric.
It is the OSPF administrative distance.
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the distance in hops to the network.
It is the value assigned to an interface that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the metric.
15-
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands added on router B?
allows router A to form an adjacency with router B
***provides a stable OSPF router ID on router B
provides a method of testing router traffic
creates the OSPF adjacency table on router B
16-
Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is entered into the router. Why does network 10.16.1.64/30 appear in the routing table in addition to network 10.16.1.64/27?
***The router views 10.16.1.64/30 and 10.16.1.64/27 as two different networks.
The static route is used as a backup route for packets destined for 10.16.1.64/27.
The AD for static routes is lower than the AD for OSPF routes.
The static route metric is lower than the OSPF metric for the 10.16.1.64/27 network.
17- What is the primary difference between link-state protocols and distance vector protocols with regard to route calculation?
*** Distance vector protocols take existing routes from their neighbors and add to them. Link-state protocols independently calculate full routes.
Link-state protocols calculate and pass full routing tables to all routers in their associated areas, and distance vector protocols do not.
When determining invalid routes, link-state protocols use split horizon for all route computations. Distance vector protocols use reverse poisoning.
Distance vector protocols require more CPU and RAM for route calculations than link-state protocols require.
18- What range of networks are advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
***192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
19-
Refer to the exhibit. When establishing adjacency relationships, which IP address would router A use to send hello packets to router B?
10.11.0.1
10.11.0.2
10.11.0.255
***224.0.0.5
255.255.255.255
20-
Refer to the exhibit. Which router will be elected the DR and which will become the BDR?
R1 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
***R1 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.
R2 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.
R2 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.
R3 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
R3 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.
21- When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks?
simpler configuration
reduction of router processing requirements
***isolation of network instability
less complex network planning
22- What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
***Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
***After the initial LSA flooding, routers generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
A link-state routing protocol requires less router processor power.
23-If a network has converged, what is true about the link-state database held by each router in the same OSPF area?
***Each router has a link-state database containing the same status information.
Each router has a different link-state database depending on its position within the network.
The link-state database is stored in a designated router and is accessed by each router in the area as needed.
The link-state database in each router only contains information about adjacent routers and the status of their links.
24-
Refer to the exhibit. RTRC was recently configured and is not sending the proper OSPF routes to RTRB, as shown in the RTRB routing table. Based on the RTRC configuration, what is most likely the problem?
RTRC interfaces are administratively shut down.
The OSPF process ID for RTRC does not match the process ID used on RTRB.
The interface addresses on RTRC overlap with other addresses in the network.
***The OSPF routing configuration on RTRC has a missing or incorrect network statement.
1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTML
HTTP
*** FTP
Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
*** applications
dialogs
requests
*** services
syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
*** centralized administration
does not require specialized software
*** security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
*** used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
*** DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
*** DNS
PPP
*** SMTP
*** POP
ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
*** acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
*** hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
*** can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
*** HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
*** Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
*** MTA
POP
*** SMTP
MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
*** does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
*** receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
*** passes email to the MDA for final delivery
*** uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
*** HTTP
*** HTTPS
IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
*** Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
*** A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
*** application
transport
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
*** 80
1261
15533
3912
65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
*** decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
*** resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
*** SMB
SMTP
Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
*** initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
*** may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
*** provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
*** uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
CCNA Exploration 1 module 2 answers
Posted by admin Labels: CCNA Exploration 1, CCNA Exploration Exam answers1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
***Physical
***Data Link
Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
***supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
***The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
***switch
5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
***network
transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
***determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
***retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
***manage data flows
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
***the path to use to reach the destination host
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
***application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
***Network B -- WAN
***Network C -- LAN
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
***Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
***multiplexing
encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
***a layer specific encapsulation
13.
Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
***an end device
an intermediate device
a media device
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
***E, F, H, I, J
15.
Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
***intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
***A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
***The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
***A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
***LAN
WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
***detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
***originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
***to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's**
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
***outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
***require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendogrs
CCNA 1 Exploration Module 1 answers
Posted by admin Labels: CCNA Exploration 1, CCNA Exploration Exam answers1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
*** They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
*** They are used for initial router configuration.
*** They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.
2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
*** debugging.
*** password recovery.
routing data between networks.
*** troubleshooting.
connecting one router to another.
3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
connects peripherals in a single location.
connects multiple networks in a single building.
provides connectivity on a LAN.
*** provides connectivity over a large geographic area.
4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
*** switching.
static addressing.
IETF standardization.
*** dynamic or static routing.
*** consistent end-to-end addressing.
5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
straight-through cable.
*** terminal emulation software.
*** rollover cable.
*** RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
V.35 cable.
6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second.
*** data bits.
*** parity.
*** stop bits.
flow control.
7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs.
*** routers.
*** communication servers.
transceivers.
*** modems.
multi-port repeaters.
8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file.
*** stores routing table.
*** holds fast switching cache.
retains contents when power is removed.
*** stores running configuration file.
9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
can be accessed remotely.
*** does not depend on network services.
*** displays startup and error messages by default.
does not require special components.
10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
*** CPU.
hard drive.
*** input/output interfaces.
keyboard.
monitor.
*** system bus.
11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted.
crossover.
*** rollover.
straight.
12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
metal-oxide memory.
read only memory.
flash memory.
*** non-volatile random access memory.
13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
packet configuration.
*** configuration files.
flash memory.
internal components.
14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
*** straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
*** a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory.
read only memory.
*** non-volatile random access memory.
flash memory.
16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
*** physical layer.
application layer.
transport layer.
*** data link layer.
session layer.
17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
*** connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
*** can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
hold the IOS image.
*** connect the router to LANs and WANs.
18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
*** troubleshooting problems.
*** monitoring the system.
capturing LAN data packets.
*** configuring the router.
routing data packets.
19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables.
bridging tables.
*** routing tables.
switching tables.
20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table.
***retains contents when power is removed.
***stores the startup configuration file.
contains the running configuration file.
stores the ARP table.
21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
holds the startup configuration by default.
*** can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
*** stores Cisco IOS software images.
stores routing table information by default.
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.
1-bWhat three statements are true about routers that are configured for EIGRP? (Choose three.)
***They can support multiple routed protocols
They can support only link-state protocols.
They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
***They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
2- Given the following commands:
Router(config)# router rip
Router(config-router)# network 192.31.7.0
What three conclusions can be determined based on the commands used on the router? (Choose three.)
A link-state routing protocol is used.
***A distance vector routing protocol is used.
***Routing updates broadcast every 30 seconds.
Routing updates broadcast every 90 seconds.
***Hop count is the only metric used for route selection.
Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are metrics used for route selection.
3- What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
There is no activity on the route to that network.
***The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
4- What two problems may occur if the EIGRP default bandwidth for a serial link is higher than the actual bandwidth? (Choose two.)
Routing updates will arrive too quickly for receiving routers to process.
The port IP address will be rejected by the routing protocol.
***Suboptimal paths will be selected.
The port protocol will return to the HDLC default.
VLSM support will be disabled.
***Network convergence may be affected.
5- What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes?
70
***90
100
110
120
255
6- A network administrator issues the command show ip route and sees this line of output:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:05, Serial0/0
What two pieces of information can be obtained from the output? (Choose two.)
***RIP is the routing protocol configured.
This is a static route to network 192.168.3.0.
***The metric for this route is 2.
The next periodic update is in 5 seconds.
The autonomous system number is 120.
7-
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the EIGRP authentication configuration?
***RTA and RTB will accept updates from each other.
RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because key 1 on RTB does not match RTA.
RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because the key chain names do not match.
The ip authentication mode AS does not match the locally configured AS.
8- Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
DUAL
IP
PDM
***RTP
TCP
UDP
9-
Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTR-1 and RTR-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?
***RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.192 0.0.0.192 area 0
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192
10- What prevents RIPv1 updates from being correctly advertised?
an increase in network load
***the use of variable length subnet masks
the use of multiple Layer 3 networks on the same router
a variation in connection speeds on the links to a destination
a mismatch between the configured bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of a link
11- What does a router that is running RIP use to determine the best path to take when forwarding data?
the host portion of the network address
the speed of network convergence
***the calculated metric for the destination network
the number of broadcasts occurring on an interface
the number of errors occurring on an interface
12- What is the purpose of the network command when RIP is being configured as the routing protocol?
It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router.
It restricts networks from being used for static routes.
It identifies all of the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in its routing table.
***It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates.
13- How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to information received in updates
***by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
14-
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command will summarize the attached routes?
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
***ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.224
15- How often does RIPv2 send routing table updates, by default?
***every 30 seconds
every 45 seconds
every 60 seconds
every 90 seconds
16-
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing problem. When the show ip route command is entered on RTR-1, only the serial link between RTR-2 and RTR-3 has been learned from the RIP routing protocol. What are two issues? (Choose two.)
***RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol.
RIPv1 does not support subnetting.
The Ethernet networks on RTR-2 and RTR-3 were not entered correctly in the network statements on these routers.
***RIPv1 does not support VLSM.
RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol.
17- What two statements are correct regarding EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)
***EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm.
***EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key.
EIGRP authentication requires that both routers have the same key chain name.
EIGRP authentication uses varying levels of WEP to encrypt data exchanged between routers.
EIGRP authentication can be configured on one router and updates from this router are protected; whereas a neighbor router can be without the authentication configuration and its updates are unprotected.
18- When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
***when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
when a router has less than five active interfaces
when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
19- What is the maximum number of hops that RIP will attempt before it considers the destination unreachable?
14 hops
***15 hops
16 hops
17 hops
20- What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
***A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
***The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.
21-
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output from the show ip protocols command?
***RIPv2 is configured on this router.
Auto summarization has been disabled.
The next routing update is due in 17 seconds.
192.168.16.1 is the address configured on the local router
Note: These answers will give you a 76.2%.
1.
Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)
Multiple data streams share one common channel.
Conversations that require extra bandwidth receive any unused time slices. ******
Time slots are utilized on a first-come, first-served basis. *****
Packets that are sent during transmission are reconstructed at the receiving end.
Priority can be dedicated to one data source.
2
At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)
Layer 1 ****
Layer 2 ****
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 6
Layer 7
3
Which three statements describe functions of the Point-to-Point Protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
operates at all layers of the OSI model
provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols ****
can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces *****
uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices
uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression *****
uses network control protocols to test and maintain connectivity between devices
4
When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
leased line
point-to-point
circuit switched *****
packet switched
5
Permanent virtual circuits and switched virtual circuits are both part of which option for WAN connectivity?
leased line
cell switching
packet switching
circuit switching ****
6
Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)
link quality ****
authentication *****
dynamic flow control
compression and network layer address for IP
connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods
7
Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP?
to establish and terminate data links
to provide authentication capabilities to PPP
to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link
to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link *****
8
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the debug output?
R2 is using PAP instead of CHAP.
The routers have different CHAP passwords configured. *****
The administrator performed a shutdown on the R2 PPP interface during negotiation.
The Layer 3 protocol negotiation caused the connection failure.
9
Which best describes data communications equipment (DCE)?
serves as data source and/or destination
responsible for negotiating windowing and acknowledgements
physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
equipment that forwards data and is responsible for the clocking signal ****
10
What statement best describes cell switching?
dedicated path created between endpoints
permanent physical link between two points
virtual circuits established in network of ISPs
fixed-length packets that traverse virtual circuits ****
11
What is the data transmission rate for the DS0 standard?
56 kbps
64 kbps ****
1.544 Mbps
44.736 Mbps
12
What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
an address identifying a virtual circuit *****
a logical address identifying the DCE device
an address identifying a Layer 3 service across a Frame Relay network
a logical address identifying the physical interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
13
At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
demarcation point *****
local loop
cloud
14
Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)
It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP. ****
It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link-establishment parameters. ****
It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link. ****
It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.
15
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
LCP is in the process of negotiating a link.
LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete.
LCP negotiation has completed successfully, but NCP negotiation is in progress. *****
LCP and NCP negotiation is complete, and the data link service is available to carry packets.
16
Refer to the exhibit. The command output is from two routers that are connected by a point-to-point T1 link. Based on the information shown, what is the likely problem if the routers are unable to communicate using TCP/IP?
A loopback has not been set on either router.
The routers have mismatched serial line encapsulation. *****
Carrier delay has not been configured on router Cisco_2801.
The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
17
Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?
Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand.
The connections between PVC endpoints act like dialup circuits.
There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier.
The physical circuits inside the Frame Relay cloud do not contain exclusive links for a specific Frame Relay connection. ****
18
What does a Frame Relay switch use to inform the sender that there is congestion?
FECN ****
BECN
DE
FCS
19
Which statement is true concerning the Cisco implementation of the HDLC protocol?
supports authentication
universally compatible frame format
default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers *****
does not support multiple protocols across a single link
20
What two services allow the router to dynamically map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
ARP
ICMP
Proxy ARP
Inverse ARP ****
LMI status messages****
1- Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
***Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.
2- What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the
Distribution layer?
It is limited to copper connections.
It does not support QoS.
It does not support voice VLAN capability.
***It does not support route summarization.
3- When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
location and placement of firewalls
***voice-level quality of service
security policy requirements
4- Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
***PoE
***VLANs
high-density routing
packet filtering
rapidly converging routing protocols
***QoS traffic classification and marking
5- Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
***All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.
6- Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless
roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
***use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
type of routing protocols
location of existing wired clients
***coverage
position of MDF
7- What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
network layer functionality
***redundant power availability
route summarization
***SNMP
***switch clustering
inter-VLAN routing
8- A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
Catalyst 4503 switches
Cisco 1841 router
Catalyst 6509 switches
***lightweight access points
***Catalyst 2960 switches
9- Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
***access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
***Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
10- Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
***Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router
11- on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)
voice VLAN capable switch
autonomous AP
PoE switch
***Cisco wireless LAN controller
2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
***lightweight access points
12- What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
dedicated
cell switched
***packet switched
circuit switched
13- Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
***provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power
14- What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
***provides QoS classification and marking
implements a fast-converging routing protocol
uses routed interconnections between devices
aggregates traffic and performs route summarization
15- When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
***securing the network devices
implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
applying security to resources accessed by internal users
applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network
16- What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
VPNs
high-bandwidth paths to servers
***redundancy
wireless management
17- What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
hub
router
***switch
firewall appliance
18- Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
***site survey
risk assessment
scalability design
network protocol analysis
19- Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
availability
performance
***scalability
security
20- What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
***tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
providing PoE to the wireless clients
distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN
21- What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
CIDR support
***fast convergence
timed updates
VLSM support
22- A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for
an organization. The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of
the server farm, although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise
Edge for two years. What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
virus attack
***internal attack
Internet attack
phishing attack
23- Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the
enterprise headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the
backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is
allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?
The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
***The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be
configured on BE1.
24- An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom
in a downtown area. To update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a
WAN connection to the headquarters that is located in the suburban area. The WAN
connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which WAN service will provide the
most economical approach to meet the requirement?
***DSL
ATM
T1 line
Frame Relay
25- A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what
is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a T1 line?
more secure
***flexible bandwidth
shared media across the link
efficiency with fixed length packet size
1- In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of a network installation?
final project costs
maintenance costs
**user satisfaction
statistics describing the performance of network devices
2- Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose two.)
**IP telephony
**live video webcasts
audio file downloads
online banking services
file archival and retrieval
3- What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
**NBAR
**NetFlow
AutoQoS
Wireshark
Custom Queuing
4- In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its importance and technical requirements?
STP
**QoS
RTP
TCP
VPN
5- What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)
**Voice packets tend to be small.
**Voice packets must be processed in real time.
Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.
Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.
Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.
Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.
6- hat are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network traffic flows? (Choose two.)
**Survey end users to obtain customer input.
Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.
Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.
Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.
**Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory configurations
7- A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when
processing voice traffic.
**Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
**Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.
The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.
8- Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)
**firewalls
priority queuing
**access control lists
**intrusion detection systems
DHCP
128-bit WEP
9- The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)
voice-enabled firewall
PoE switches and patch panels
redundant backbone connectivity
**voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
**separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented
10- When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose two.)
**Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
**Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.
11- What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?
implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
**install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability
12- When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
define QoS policies
define traffic classes
determine traffic patterns
**identify traffic requirements
identify networking equipment
13-Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
RTP should be used.
Traffic is predictable.
Packets are small in size.
**Transfers are throughput intensive.
**Response-time requirements are low.
14- Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
the type of ISP services needed
the capabilities of end-user devices
**the areas where network congestion may occur
the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
**locations where high-bandwidth connections are required
15- Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
**A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
**A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer
switch.
16- Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?
network planning and mapping
IDS and IPS capabilities
**peak usage times and traffic routing
network billing and accounting application
security and user account restrictions
source and destination UDP port mapping
17- Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
high
normal
medium
**default
18- Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
queue traffic definitions
priority list protocol assignments
**type of queuing being implemented
**number of packets placed in each queue
queuing defaults that have been changed
queuing has not been applied to this interface
19- An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these protocols?
IDS
VPN
WLAN
firewall
**real-time video
20- A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
PoE switches must be purchased.
**More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
**QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.
21- Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the bottom?
A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
**A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1
22- A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
**atomic
consistent
durable
isolated
23- What is the primary goal of QoS?
classification of traffic
filtering and queuing voice traffic
reducing bandwidth requirements
**providing priority service to selected traffic
24- Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
ToS
**CoS
DSCP
IP precedence
25- A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the
system goes down before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a
record of this transaction after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the
tickets and the credit card account will be debited accordingly?
atomic
consistent
**durable
isolated
26- Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent
switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which
two protocols would be needed to provide the support? (Choose two.)
HDLC
**HSRP
PPP
**RSTP
VTP
27- network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming
applications. Which two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources
and minimize latency by incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
**RTCP
HSRP
RSTP
**RTP
RPC
28- Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when
compared to traditional telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
**manages phones centrally
utilizes centralized call routing
**creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones
29- When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can
be controlled to improve performance? (Choose two.)
link speed
**delay
packet routing
**jitter
packet addressing
1- It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design Requirements Document?
Project Goal
**Project Scope
Technical Requirements
Current State of the Network
2- Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of a router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)
amount of NVRAM installed
**model number of the router
number of interfaces and installed HWICs
**installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
error statistics for each interface
3- Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS
version for an upgrade? (Choose three.)
processor ID
interface type
**amount of DRAM
bootstrap version
**device make and model
**size of system flash memory
4- What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a router? (Choose two.)
Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.
Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
**Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
**Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely
5- The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is hotswappable. What does this mean?
The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge
could damage the card.
The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.
**The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.
The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is
replacing.
6- Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
**One connected device has router capability.
The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.
Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
**Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF
7- Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
**The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9
image.
8-An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which command performs this task?
**copy tftp flash
copy flash run
copy start tftp
copy flash tftp
copy tftp start
9- Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to run this Cisco IOS image?
**There is not enough DRAM and flash.
There is enough DRAM and flash.
There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.
10- Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
**identify coverage areas
**determine primary AP locations
determine what AP equipment should be purchased
determine how many users will access the WLAN
identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure
11- Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
**Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.
**Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the DMZ.
Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.
12- A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of the router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?
processor type
storage space in NVRAM
**interfaces and modules to be supported
compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software
13- An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area. Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
**number of users in the area
**location of the AP
list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
**location of walls and filing cabinets in the office
14- The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
**size of DRAM and flash on each device
**routers that will support HWICs and VWICs
system bootstrap version on each router and switch
**modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS
15- A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What could be the problem?
**There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.
16- Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined from the output shown?
The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.
The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
**The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.
The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.
17- A production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be determined? (Choose three.)
**POST occurred normally.
The boot process was interrupted.
There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
**A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
**A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.
The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
18- During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from radiating out into the parking lot?
change the channel on the wireless AP
connect the wireless AP to a firewall
**change the type of antenna attached to the AP
move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch
19- A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this phase of the project?
eliminate the need for a site survey
shorten the timeframe of the project
lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
**To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new
20- Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
version
file format
**feature set
hardware platform
21- Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
**R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
**The version of the IOS is 12.3.
Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.
22- During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak
usage and the estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what step of the site survey process?
the defining of customer requirements
**the identification of coverage areas
the determining of preliminary AP locations
the measurement of signal strength
23- Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)
The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
**Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
The copy command was incorrectly entered.
**The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.
24- In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network
consulting team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers, provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?
network requirements
project scope
overall project goal
**state of the network